Douglass inveighs against slavery in the US. Where does Aristotle’s justification of slavery fit into this dialogue?
Aristotle’s justification for slavery has clearly made an impact on how slavery is viewed by society. Aristotle believes that slavery is justified because people who are slaves are so by nature, not by force. Since it is by nature that slaves exist then it is just to have it in society. Slaves, for Aristotle, were characterized by their perceived lack of intelligence, making them unsuitable for any higher social standing in Aristotle's city. However, rather than examining the environment to which slaves are born to, Aristotle rationalizes this inferiority as being inherent to the slave and an unchangeable nature. Douglass, being a former slave, understands this is not true. A well - spoken, literate man, Douglass demonstrates that slaves don’t lack an ability to learn but are subjected to this role in society and are not allowed to strive towards any social mobility. However, the idea that slaves are justified by nature has persisted in the United States’ justification of its use of slavery.
Additionally, Aristotle dissects the slaves’ character as being unsuitable for higher social standing because of their inferiority an idea that morphed into the inferiority of race in the United States. Aristotle examines what exactly is different between a slave and a citizen of his state much how the United States tries to see what makes a black slave different from a white citizen. The perceived inferiority of slaves due to lack of intelligence etc. becomes no longer a characteristic of a slave in the United States but of a black slave. Aristotle’s role in justifying slavery is prevalent in the United States and seems to have consequences in how the United States views race.
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